A number of years ago, I wondered whether the phrase "zahav tahor" (which
appears many times, especially in Sefer Shemos in relation to the keilim of
the mishkan) means: (A) gold that is ritually pure, either by immersion in
a mikveh or by never becoming tamei to begin with, or (B) gold that is pure
in the sense of having no other metals alloyed into it. I vaguely recall
getting "B" as the answer here on Avodah, but I am unable to find any
records of that discussion. If anyone can bring any sources, I'd appreciate
it.
I was reminded of the above by a similar question in yesterday's Parshas
Vayishlach. The root "tamay" appears in three separate pesukim: "Yaakov
heard that he (Chamor) tim'ay Dinah his daughter" (34:5). "For he (Chamor)
tim'ay their sister Dinah" (34:13). "They plundered the city that tim'oo
their sister" (34:27, note the plural form, suggesting collective guilt).
What sort of tum'ah is being referred to here? My guess is that this is NOT
referring to a technical tum'as keri, which I understand to exist only
among Jews. Rather, this tum'ah is of a colloquial or social sort: Chamor
defiled, abused, profaned, and dishonored Dinah. But do any meforshim say
this explicitly? Or is it so obvious that no one felt a need to say so?
I suspect (but I'm not sure) that this social defilement might appear
elsewhere in the Chumash as well. For example, Devarim 24:4 - "Her first
husband is not able to take her again to become his wife, after she had
been defiled..." Is this a social defilement to the first husband resulting
from her second *marriage*, or is it a technical defilement resulting from
tumas keri *during* that second marriage? (I suppose this question can be
easily answered depending on whether this prohibition begins with her
kiddushin to the second husband, or only after eirusin with the second
husband.)
Sometimes words have obvious meanings, but sometimes we don't see the
ambiguity until it is pointed out.
R Yehudah (Menachos 29a) says that Shelomo melted the gold and spilled off
the dross so many times, that is took him 1,000 kikarim of initial gold to
get something from which he would make the menorah.
"Zahav tahor" means (b), gold with no other metals alloyed into it.
I have used this idea to explain the Ramchal's and RSRH's description of
taharah. Free will unalloyed by habits of gashmiyus.
R Yehudah (Menachos 29a) says that Shelomo melted the gold and
spilled off the dross so many times, that is took him 1,000
kikarim of initial gold to get something from which he would
make the menorah.
"Zahav tahor" means (b), gold with no other metals alloyed
into it.
I looked at that gemara, and I don't see where it mentions "zahav tahor".
The refining process there is used for making "zahav sagur", which I
presume to be something else.
I'd like to suggest a different proof for the translation of "zahav tahor"
as "24K, 100%, unalloyed gold".
Namely: Is it possible for a blob of unformed metal to be tamei? I suspect
that gold cannot become tamei until it has been made into a keli, such
jewelry, or a coin, or a menorah. If so, then a requirement to use zahav
tahor *must* refer to metallic purity, simply because the ritual purity is
a given.
Can someone confirm or deny this guess about an unformed lump of metal?
If my guess is correct, then it opens the door to using the words tumah and
tahara in a colloquial context, and the possibility that "Chamor defiled
Dinah" in an antisocial manner, rather than invoking technicalities of
Tum'as Keri.
But why did Shelomo haMelekh need that level of refining done if "zahav
tahor" didn't mean the gold had to be as pure as possible?
But I since found the Ramban on Vayiqra 12:8, where he relates "bidmei
taharah" after birthing a boy to the "zahav tahor", saying both refer to
"niqayon... tzaruf umzuqaq". And then explains how the idea applies to
the new mother.