kamatz katan at end of word?

Mesorah
1

Hi, all,

We may have discussed this already, but what is the rule, please, for
an unstressed kamatz at the end of a word followed (not with a makaf,
not with a mafsik) by a dagesh (not beged-kefes): is it a kamatz
katan? (An example is in R'e, which we read today, 14:26:
v'aCHALt[a/o] SHAM.)

K'siva vachasima tova.

Menashe Hamm

2

I would argue that it would be a kamatz gadol. This situation (milaeil word ending in kamatz followed by a word with primary or secondary stress on the first syllable) causes a dagesh in the second word due to the rule of ati m'rechik. To the best of my recollection, I have not seen the Rada"k, Ibn Ezra or the Minchat Shai indicate that that kamatz is then a kamatz katan.

Zuki

3

It is a kamatz gadol.
Jeremy

4

I asked:
<<We may have discussed this already, but what is the rule, please, for
an unstressed kamatz at the end of a word followed (not with a makaf,
not with a mafsik) by a dagesh (not beged-kefes): is it a kamatz
katan? (An example is in R'e, which we read today, 14:26:
v'aCHALt[a/o] SHAM.)>>

Many thanks to the three respondents (one off-list), who all said it's gadol.

K'siva vachasima tova.

Menashe Hamm