(no subject)

"Let's be dan l'kaf zechus. People like me who have knee problems find it difficult to stand for any length to time. I sit during the Aseres Hadibros.

And in light of this, may I suggest that everyone sit so as not to have those who cannot stand be embarrassed."

Do you also sit for the musaf amidah on Rosh Hashana and Ne'ilah on Yom Kippur? And since there are those who cannot and do not stand for those because of physical infirmities, would you suggest that everyone sit for those teffilot so as not to embarrass the ones who truly must sit?

Joseph

No, they weren't. BH and BS were after the churban, or perhaps they started in the very last years before it, when things were far from normal functioning.

R ZS responded to my post, I repost his observations with mine interspersed:
I wrote:
MR – It is also important to consider WHY the boss wants his other workers
to proclaim their support, my point being that the boss realises this
information is not to the Din Torah, the BD does not ask for it and IF they
do it may only be reported in BD,
So the boss has asked for this because he is fairly certain this will
decompose and disturb his BaAl Din – just like presenting what appears to
be a second witness, the case of the Gemara.

R ZS wrote – His motives are irrelevant.

MR – Why are the motives irrelevant – is it not apparent that he feels his
argument needs to be buttressed by interference that provides absolutely no
illumination upon the facts of the case or the relevant Sevaros – that
would seem to be very much the meaning of the Gemara the Rebbe/Rosh
Yeshivah is seeking to create a false sense of evidence.
Even more so, do his motives not indicate that he is confident these
tactics will yield results he is looking for?
Indeed, it would seem to be even more a Sheker because the Rebbe/Rosh
Yeshivah is at least working within a framework of having evidence that BD
evaluates whereas the letter of support is entirely outside BD
considerations and designed to merely decompose the other litigant.

I suppose you might be suggesting that in for example the present debate in
E Yisrael, about changes to the High Court - are members of the public and
influential community identities not permitted to express their opinion?
Yes indeed but they are offering an opinion about the topic about the
substance of the Sevaros and counter Sevaros.
It is clearly prohibited to besmirch someones character in order to promote
a position.
And is not declaring that this litigant is to be trusted – besmirching the
integrity of the other litigant? No matter the protestations that one
speaks only of this fellows qualities?
When someone says, that is a silly Q because R Akive Eiger did not ask it.
Or why would anyone consider that an answer to RAE Kasheh if RAE himself
did not consider it – that is playing the man not the ball.
That would be a horrible example of MShT.
I think we need to recognise that MShT is not an evaluation about the
spoken or implied statement,
MShT is about the consequence, the outcome. If one wraps themselves in a
flag to declare their allegiance or wear Chassidishe or Litvishe Levush in
order to promote an image and gain acceptance and trust – is that not MShT?

R ZS – But now you have moved the goalposts.

MR – I am sorry if I did move the goalposts, I did not intend to and I do
not see why you think I did or intended to move them.

R ZS – If the employees don't really trust their employer and don't really
have confidence that whatever he says is true, then of course it would be
sheker for them to say they do.

MR – but we ARE NOT discussing Sheker we are evaluating MShT.
In the Gemara the Talmid has absolute faith and confidence in his Rosh
Yeshivah/Rebbe and it is precisely for this reason that it is Assur MShT –
the issue is NOT the outcome, it is the PROCESS.

R ZS – The presumption in your original scenario was that they honestly do
trust him; if so, there's no reason in the world why they should not say
so.

MR – that is only true PERHAPS if they are not weighing upon the other
litigant and compromising his position or eroding his confidence. And even
if they are not they are transgressing the terrible sin of reinforcing and
provoking the continuance of the Machlokes.
Even witnesses who are instructed to provide evidence can do so only in BD
if they offer that information outside BD they are violating so many
prohibitions listed in the ChCH.

R ZS – There is not even a slight smidgen of sheker in that. So long as
they don't say or imply that they have personal knowledge confirming his
allegations against their colleague, they are telling 100% emes, and are as
far away from sheker as it is possible to be.

The fact that it will harm their colleague and make his case harder to
argue should not be their concern at all; they have no more duty to him
than to the employer.

MR – their duty is EXCLUSIVELY to HKBH and they are not permitted to
provide any information unless sanctioned by BD and presented to the BD.

R ZS – Since they do trust him, they presumably agree that justice is on
his side, so not only are they practicing emes they are also promoting
tzedek. But even in pursuit of tzedek they must not pretend to have
personal knowledge that they don't.

MR – if the workers have witnessed with their own eyes that this worker
acted negligently, there is no Q that broadcasting that information is
LHara, which is the reporting of absolute truth, and it is prohibited to
report this because not all the conditions have been satisfied, in the main
they do not know if this event is enough to justify the boss sacking him.
Am I saying anything that is not obvious?

Best,

Meir G. Rabi

0423 207 837
+61 423 207 837

In a recent shiur R H Schachter mentioned that one of the reasons for the
attempted restart of smicha in tzfat was in order to be able to give malkot
(and associated kapara) to those who submitted to christianity. He then
mentioned that those rabbis assumed a court of smuchim could do this even
without hatraa having being given to the sinners. Any guesses as to why
they thought so?

She-nir’eh et nehamat Yerushalayim u-binyanah bi-mherah ve-yamenu

Joel Rich

Toby Katz responding to my post, re Kitniyot during Pesach,
wrote that corn and peanuts are both New World foods
They were unknown at the time the Kitniyos ban was promulgated

Furthermore they ought not be included just as potatoes are not banned on
Pesach.
even though potato flour can be cooked and baked like Chamets,
but as a New World food
and also because they became a staple, without which actual starvation
would have been a danger.

This may all be true
but was not the point of my post

My point is that
the Kitniyoy Ban NEVER applied
but to foods that were actually COOKED like porridge
If they were NOT COOKED
even if they may have a type that would sometimes be cooked
it was not included in the ban

So fresh peas, sugar snaps etc are not banned
UNLESS they are cooked, a Tavshil

The Shulchan Aruch HaRav does not even mention BAKING
In fact he deliberately chose to abandon BAKING which is mentioned in the
Levush.

Best,

Meir G. Rabi

0423 207 837
+61 423 207 837

Oops, I forgot the main point:

My point is that
the Kitniyoy Ban NEVER applied
but to foods that were actually COOKED like porridge
If they were NOT COOKED
even if they may have a type that would sometimes be cooked
it was not included in the ban

Actually, we don't eat peas even in non-porridge form.

It seems that qithiyos includes plants that can be cooked like porridge,
wihether or not this particular food does.

And mustard? Qitniyos apparently also sometimes includes grain-like seeds.
But not quinoa? That's why I said "apparently also sometimes". I don't
get this corner of the minhag.

Peanuts are legumes -- literally qitniyos. And they do appear in
tavshilin, famously in Thai cuisine, if not porridges.

Then we have the Chayei Adam's famous comment that the only reason why
potatoes aren't included in the minhag is because it would be something
she'ein hatzibbur yakhol laamod bah. Also appears in tavshilin, although
not porridges -- unless mashed potatoes are close enough. In any case,
the CA focuses on the ease of making potato faux bread.

To further complicate the limits of the minhag... Is there a single "the
minhag"? Or did different communities have slightly different minhagim?
For example, mei qitniyos were used by some Eastern European communities
(and I think Yekkes too) but not by others. Shemen qitniyos was used by
yet more. Although in the US, the nays on shemen qitniyos won. There was
a time when the usual Pesachdik oil was peanut. Not any more.

Chodesh Tov!
Tir'u baTov!
-Micha

Does hkbh give one a nisayon that one cannot pass? I guess the answer
depends a lot on how you define the terms but in its strongest sense
doesn’t this imply that anyone who ever sins hasn’t tried hard enough?
KT
Joel Rich

I think you asked this one some months back already.

If you are defining an opportunity to sin as a nisayon, then you would
have to say every tinoq shenishba would be given nisyonos they could
not pass.

And of another kind of nisayon -- every person who had a nervous
breakdown was given a nisayon they couldn't pass. Unless you think
they actually chose letting go of sanity while still in a state of full
bechiras chofshi.

I think passing is something you need to be HQBH to define. Perhaps
someone who struggles and still sins, but struggles more than they did
yesterday "passed". Or someone who did the wrong thing, but had more
positive -- even if erroneous -- motives than they used to.

I think we should leave this question to Hashem and His Accountants,
and for ourselves just try our hardest, and when watching others - dan
lekaf zekhus. The question doesn't matter as much at it seems.

Tir'u baTov!
-Micha

.
R' Joel Rich asked:

Does hkbh give one a nisayon that one cannot pass? I guess the
answer depends a lot on how you define the terms but in its
strongest sense doesn’t this imply that anyone who ever sins
hasn’t tried hard enough?

I once asked Rav Elazar Mayer Teitz z"l about this. He answered yes, there
is most definitely at least one situation where a person will definitely be
unable to avoid sinning, and that is when he is confronted by an Eishes
Y'fas Toar.

But I later pondered this answer, and realized that it might be taken two
different ways, and I regret that I never got around to asking him about it.

One possibility (surely the one that REMT intended) is that Eishes Y'fas
Toar is the ONLY such example. There are no other cases where it is
impossible for a person to overcome his yetzer hara. If there were other
such cases, the Torah would have prescribed some procedure to help for them
too.

But isn't there another possibility? Maybe Eishes Y'fas Toar really is just
one example, to illustrate that we are human and fallible. Maybe there ARE
other cases where the temptation really is overpowering. Maybe there is a
reason why Eishes Y'fas Toar was singled out to get a procedure for heter,
and I just don't know what that reason is.

But, as R' Micha Berger wrote, it doesn't really matter. Let's suppose that
Hashem does have a list of unpassable tests for which failure is not
counted against us. When I get to a difficult situation, I have no way of
knowing whether this situation is on that list or not. Therefore, I must
always try my hardest, on the safek that this situation IS passable.

BTW, as I understand it, even Eishes Y'fas Toar is NOT carte blanche to do
what you want. If the soldier wants that woman, he must follow the halacha
and the prescribed procedure. He CANNOT simply say "I can't stop myself"
and get away with it.

Wherever this concept came from, I strongly suspect that it was intended to
help us and strengthen our yetzer tov. (Hashem would not have given you
this test unless He was confident you'd pass it, so find a way!) I find it
hard to accept that it was intended as a loophole. (This one is just too
hard; do what you want and don't feel guilty about it.)

Akiva Miller

PS: By the way, a quick Google search suggested that the source for this
idea is in the Christian Bible, specifically 1 Corinthians 10:13.

.