What is the connection in the 21 books between Shalsheles and the Segol (Segolta)?
I’ve been told that wherever there “should have been” a zarko segol, but there was only one word, it acquired a shalsheles instead. EG in Tzav Vayishchat has a shalsheles, but had there been a subject - Mosheh - it would have become zarko segol.
Is this assumption true?
Is there a source for this?
We looked at Hedidenheim’s Mishp’tei Hat’amim and he said nothing explicit on it, but did group them together under the same topic heading.
This is basically correct, but, as always, there are details.
You should not be looking at Heidenheim. He was very advanced for his time, but later scholarship has improved on him. You should be looking at, for example, Broyer's book on trop, or some other modern ones.
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IIRC Breuer, Perlman, Wickes all give this analysis. Where a segol would
have appeared on the first word of the pasuk.
OK so the same fellow who lent me his Heidenheim just lent me his Breuer (Ta’amei Hammikra b’chof aleph…)
It is clear that the shalsheles is a “t’mura for the segol” and apparently it comes on only the first word in a passuk (p.18)